Question

. Prove that, for all integers n ≥ 1, Pn i=1 i(i!) = (n + 1)!...

. Prove that, for all integers n ≥ 1, Pn i=1 i(i!) = (n + 1)! − 1

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Answer #1

Since p(1) is true

p(k) is true implies p(k+1) is true.

Therefore by principle of mathematical induction  

p(n) is true.

Hope you get your answer. Thank you and please like the answer .

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