Suppose G and H are groups and ϕ:G -> H is a homomorphism. Let N be a normal subgroup of G contained in ker(ϕ). Define a mapping ψ: G/N -> H by ψ (aN)= ϕ (a) for all a in G.
Prove that ψ is a well-defined homomorphism from G/N to H.
Is ψ always an isomorphism? Prove it or give a counterexample
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 1 hours.