1) Show that ¬p → (q → r) and q → (p ∨ r) are logically equivalent. No truth table and please state what law you're using. Also, please write neat and clear. Thanks
2) .Show that (p ∨ q) ∧ (¬p ∨ r) → (q ∨ r) is a tautology. No truth table and please state what law you're using. Also, please write neat and clear.
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