We have two economic factors F1 and F2 in a two-factor APT model. We have the following data on three well-diversified portfolios.
Stock |
Expected return | bi1 | bi2 |
A | 7% | 2 | -1 |
B | 17% | 1 | 2 |
C | 12% | 1 | ? |
If the risk free rate is 2%, what is stock C's bi2 so that there is no arbitrage opportunity in the market?
Group of answer choices
0.5
-1
2
1
Solution:
As per Arbitration pricing theory,
Expected return = R(f) + b1f1 + b2f2
For Stock A, 7 = 2 + 2 f1 - 1 f2 ,
So, 2 f1 - f2 = 5, so f2 = 2f1 - 5 ----------------- (a)
Now for Stock B , 17 = 2 + f1 + 2f2 ---------------- (b)
Using equation (a) and putting in (b) , we get
2( 2f1-5) +f1 = 15
5f1 = 25, and value of f1 = 5.
so value of f2 = 2(5) - 5 = 5
Hence , f1= 5 and f2 = 5
So we can calculate now for stock C, since for no arbitrage, the factors will be same
For stock C : 12 = 2 + b1f1 + b2f2
12 = 2 + 5 + 5b2
so, b2 = 1
Hence the bi2 for stock C = 1
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