Morataya Corporation has two manufacturing departments--Machining and Assembly. The company used the following data at the beginning of the year to calculate predetermined overhead rates:
Machining | Assembly | Total | ||||
Estimated total machine-hours (MHs) | 7,000 | 3,000 | 10,000 | |||
Estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead cost | $ | 39,200 | $ | 6,600 | $ | 45,800 |
Estimated variable manufacturing overhead cost per MH | $ | 1.90 | $ | 2.10 | ||
During the most recent month, the company started and completed two jobs--Job B and Job G. There were no beginning inventories. Data concerning those two jobs follow:
Job B | Job G | |||||
Direct materials | $ | 14,800 | $ | 8,300 | ||
Direct labor cost | $ | 22,000 | $ | 8,900 | ||
Machining machine-hours | 4,800 | 2,200 | ||||
Assembly machine-hours | 1,200 | 1,800 | ||||
Assume that the company uses a plantwide predetermined manufacturing overhead rate based on machine-hours. The amount of manufacturing overhead applied to Job B is closest to: (Round your intermediate calculations to 2 decimal places.)
Multiple Choice
$31,392
$27,480
$39,240
$7,848
Machining: | |
Estimated fixed mfg overhead | 39200 |
Estimated variable mfg overhead [1.90 x 7000] | 13300 |
Estimated total mfg overhead | 52500 |
Assembly: | |
Estimated fixed mfg overhead | 6600 |
Estimated variable mfg overhead [2.10 x 3000] | 6300 |
Estimated total mfg overhead | 12900 |
Total mfg overhead = 52500 + 12900 = 65400
Thus, predetermined overhead rate = Total mfg overhead/ total machine hrs
= 65400/ 10000
= $6.54 per machine hr
Overhead rate applied to Job B
= predetermined overhead rate x Machine hrs incurred by Job B
= 6.54 x 6000
= 39240 i.e. Option C
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 1 hours.