Oh, and could you please show your work in as much detail as possible. I already kinda know the answer, I just want to see how you get it. Thank you so much!!!
Edit: Thank you so much for trying to help me but I figured it out but I would appreciate your help in the following question. Thank You!
One hundred identical mortgages are pooled together into a pass-through security. Each mortgage has a $100,000 principal, a fixed interest rate of 9% p.a. (paid monthly), and is fully amortized over a term of 30 years. Assume the bank charges servicing fees of 40 basis points and GNMA charges 10 bp to insure the timing of the payments. If investors expect no prepayment on these loans over the 30 years life of the pass-through, what should they pay for this package of mortgage backed securities (MBS), if they demand a return of 8%?
EDIT: I am sorry but this is the entirety of the question; I realize that a lot of people are asking for more information and I really don't have any. Could you please a little more specific in your comment as to what information you are looking for? Thank you for trying to help me out.
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