Partner A received the following in a non-liquidating distribution:
Basis FMV
Cash $20,000 $20,000
Inventory Item 1 $15,000 $18,000
Inventory Item 2 $12,000 $4,000
Capital Asset 1 $15,000 $8,000
Capital Asset 2 $10,000 $20,000
$72,000 $70,000
Assume A’s basis in the partnership before the distribution was $35,000. What would the bases of the assets be to A?
The cash of $20,000 would reduce the basis available to the inventory to $20,000. However, since the inventory has total basis of $15,000 and $12,000 = $27,000, there is a $7,000 deficit. The deficit will first be allocated to the depreciated inventory (12000 - 4000 = 8000) (Item 2), to the extent of the depreciation. The other ($7000 - $8000 =$1,000 of deficit will be allocated to the inventory items according to their remaining bases: |
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$ 789.47 | ||||||||
Item 2= $1000 x $4000/$19000 | $ 210.53 | ||||||||
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Item 1’s basis would be $15000 - $789.47 |
$ 14,210.53 | ||||||||
Item 2’s basis would be $12000 - $8000 - $210.53 | $ 3,789.47 | ||||||||
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