one of the transaction confused me.
Transaction: the company bought equipment at 45 for cash to get discount of 50. The equipment to be replaced in 3 years at an expected cost of 60.
What does this 60 mean? why it is even more than the acquisition cost 45. Why does it not affect income statement ( the answer to the question just ignores this 60, but I do not why?)
In this requirement it is assumed that cost of the original equipment is 100 and discount allowed by the company is 50 so cost of the goods now is 50(100 - 50) and in order to prompt payment that in cash payment, it is then given additional discount 5 and mow the cost of the equipment for purchaser is 45 (50 - 5)
In summary it is like that
Original cost is 100
Discount offer is 50
Cost after discount is 50 (100 - 50)
Cash discount is 5 for prompt payment
Cost of purchase for the buyer is 45 (50 - 5)
Now, after 3 year the equipment is replaced by 60 also possible as original cost is 100 ,so now 60 the value which decline from the original cost.
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